יט וליטעמיך להך לישנא דאמר עבדי כמטלטלין דמי למה לי עומד בתוכה
19 in motion, and property in motion cannot be the means of conveying anything it carries. Moreover, even if you argue that the slave was then stationary, did not Raba say that whatsoever cannot be the means of conveying while in motion cannot be the means of conveying even while in the state of standing or sitting?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Git. 21a, 68a; B.M. 9b. ');"><sup>16</sup></span> — This law applies to the case where the slave was put in stocks. But behold has it not been taught: 'If possession is taken of the land, title is thereby acquired also to the slaves'?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Apparently on account of the fact that these are treated like personalty. ');"><sup>17</sup></span> — There the slaves were gathered on the land.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' In which case even if they are not personalty their transfer has to he valid. ');"><sup>18</sup></span> This implies that the Baraitha which stated that the transfer of the slaves is ineffective,<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' When only incidental to the transfer of land. ');"><sup>19</sup></span> deals with a case where the slaves were not gathered on the land. That is all very well according to the version that R. Ika the son of R. Ammi said that slaves are considered personalty; there is thus the stipulation that if they were gathered on the land, the transfer is effective, otherwise ineffective. But according to the version which reads that slaves are considered realty, why the stipulation that the slaves be gathered on the land?